Originally Posted by Monaco
Doesn't make any sense to me. If I buy a 2012 for invoice (call it $40k) and another guy buy a '13 on the same day for $1,000 over ($41k), at the end of 3 years, the FMV of both cars will be more than $1k apart even if mileage is the same just for the fact that they are 1 model year different.
Don't see why anyone would pop for a '12 that was so similar in price to an equivalent '13...
The dealer paid close to the same price for each car. Sure he wants to move the '12, but doesn't have to take a bath on it. An extra $1000 off is all it might take any particular buyer, since the model years are so close in features. It's all related to elasticity of demand.